Originally posted by GeneV OK, with those semantics, there are limits on when and how you can exclude people from speaking, but there is no intrinsic right to free speech.
"Congress shall make no law... abridging the freedom of speech"
Seems pretty darn clear to me, and the only question is what abridges speech.
"But when the right to vote at any election for the choice of electors for President and Vice President of the United States, Representatives in Congress, the Executive and Judicial officers of a State, or the members of the Legislature thereof, is denied to any of the male inhabitants of such State, being twenty-one years of age, and citizens of the United States, or in any way abridged, except for participation in rebellion, or other crime, the basis of representation therein shall be reduced in the proportion which the number of such male citizens shall bear to the whole number of male citizens twenty-one years of age in such State."
The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of race, color, or previous condition of servitude. The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of sex.
The right of citizens of the United States to vote in any primary or other election for President or Vice President, for electors for President or Vice President, or for Senator or Representative in Congress, shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or any State by reason of failure to pay any poll tax or other tax.
Seems to me like you can, constitutionally speaking of course, limit voting rights to only firearms owners, or only government employees, or only union members, or only landowners (hint, this was the status in many locations when the constitution was adopted). There is no recognized
right to vote. Feel free to change this, I'd be in favor of changing it, but it's perfectly within the state's prerogative to limit voting to ONLY those who own an ID as long as that law isn't really meant to eliminate minorities, etc., from voting. Seeing as state ID's are pretty much free I don't see how that's applicable.
Originally posted by GeneV Reynolds v. Sims, 377 U.S. at 560, quoting Wesbury v. Sanders, 376 U.S. 1.
If you say so. What is 'unnecessarily abridging'? Where in the constitution is that information based? You know that case was about gerrymandering, and gerrymandering is now, basically, federally required (i.e. in southern states you cannot "dilute" minority-majority districts), right?