Originally posted by john.margetts Spelling doesn't just mimic pronunciation, sometimes it represents what the writer knew to be the case. With 'Alnwick' the people who established the spelling knew the place was a wick even if no one actually pronounced the 'w' so the 'w' had to be there. Same with the 'l' as they knew the wick was on the banks of the river Aln.
Is the river pronounced "A-L-N" or A-N-N?" When was the spelling of the river established, by whom, what was the pronunciation of the river's name at that time, and was there any variation in pronunciation between the educated who established the spelling and "ordinary folk?" Is the "w" in "wick" as applied to an open field pronounced or not pronounced? If the river is pronounced "A-L-N" and the "w" is pronounced in "wick", why is "Alnwick" pronounced "Ann - ick?" Again, I think I know, understand, and accept, but it is not logical, and logic has been used in this thread to criticize pronunciations used in the USA.