Originally posted by aslyfox I fail to understand how some people apparently do not seem to understand data or its limitations
what am I missing ?
I'm just " a poor simple country lawyer " but if my opponent used this " data " against me in court to prove how poorly my " client " was adhering to "rules and regulations "
All I would need to do to blow their argument out of court is to read the above to totally discredit the argument
from the comments I have been reading I am confused
are parts of " Country X " acting " foolishly "
I won't disagree with that statement but I cannot use this data to prove it
another thought
this is part of the data, it gives no information as to the " density " of those areas
are we talking about thousands of people in a small area or smaller numbers of people in a large area and those people maintaining social distance from each other ?
can that be told from the data ?
It's not a court of law Allen. What the (available) data shows is that a lot of people are still out going about their normal business.
As of now, the USA are looking at 9,441 deaths out of 331,151 positive tests. You only have to look at the infection graph curve to see that, in the USA, infections are far from peaking. So, that means that, looking at the (available) data that many more will become infected and many more will die.
Now, should you compare the USA with the infection graphs of many other countries then you'll see that the rate of infection is particularly steep in the USA. Problem is, the USA is a very big place with a very large population. So, that will equate to many deaths in your jurisdiction if it turns out that people are not isolating themselves as the data seems to show.
Now, it could be that the infection rates data is skewed by the amount of testing being done. Different countries are not testing at the same rates:
So, why is the infection rate in the USA so steep, if not from lack of self-isolation?