Originally posted by sylvainp A 120mm F4 on a 645 was a 120mm F4 and no one would call the lens 85mm F1.4 adapted on a 135 film body
You are right that renaming a lens in that manner is not helpful.
It does, however, make a ton of sense to refer to a 50/1.8 APS-C lens as a "75/2.8 FF-equivalent" lens. Why? Because to all purposes and intents, the APS-C lens will allow you to take the same images that a 75/2.8 lens will allow you to take on FF.
As to why people started to suddenly use "FF currency" (for focal length and widest f-stop) for APS-C lenses, my believe is that prior to the introduction of the digital APS-C format, it was not at all common for
regular photographers to use one and the same lens with different formats. The economics of digital sensors produced the phenomenon of "crop sensors" that worked with lenses that were originally intended for a larger format. This consequence of reusing a mount that is strictly speaking too big for the sensor format used, naturally invited questions like "
What do pictures taken with a 50/1.4 FF lens look like on a crop sensor camera?". The answer is, of course, they'll look like as if you were using an FF camera (something that the vast majority has been doing so far and hence were familiar with) with a 75/2 lens. This gave people a way to understand what to expect from a 50/1.4 on APS-C.
You can blame the industry's convention to label lenses with their focal length instead of with their AOV. If a 50mm lens were labelled "46.79°" then it would have been possible to simply state "
This 46.79° FF lens, will look like a 32.17° lens on APS-C". This would have avoided unhelpful responses like "50mm = 50mm" and "f/2.8 = f/2.8" because no one challenges the fact that the AOV changes when one crops. What most people do not seem to understand is that the idea is not to claim that a 50mm "becomes" a 75mm lens. As a matter of fact, it is correct that the focal length doesn't change. However, it is 100% valid to say that the 50mm lens on APS-C is equivalent to a 75mm lens on FF. So the correct wording is that it is an "75mm FF-equivalent" lens.
Originally posted by sylvainp Anyway tell me this, if I put my 300mm da F4 lens on my pentax K1, I take a picture of a subject in FF mode then switch to crop mode and take the same picture and compare both what change ?
The most obvious change will the the AOV. You'll see a lot less in the cropped frame. This, for obvious reasons, makes it non-trivial to compare images/settings, as it will always remain an apples and oranges comparison in which you can only pick your poison but never do a straightforward comparison.
A much more helpful question is what the difference between two images is that are shot on
- K-1 in FF mode with a 300mm lens at f/4.
- K-1 in crop mode with a 200mm lens at f/2.8.
The answer is (practically) none (let's ignore ISO settings here). I'm writing "practically" because technically the f-ratio should be f/2.67 for the 200mm lens, not f/2.8.
The above assumes that both images will be looked at the same size. If you were to enlarge both by the same factor, you'd get images of different sizes which, again, would make comparisons difficult. You didn't specify the viewing conditions for your thought experiment, but the only fair comparison is to assume that both are printed at the same size or that they are viewed at different magnifications on a screen.
Originally posted by sylvainp Is DOF changed (and in which way) ?
If we assume the same output size then the image taken with the crop mode engaged will show shallower DOF. Yes, that's correct, if you keep the lens and settings constant and only crop, but maintain the same output size, the image taken with the "smaller sensor" will have the shallower DOF (ignoring for the moment, that the image contents are different). This is contrary to the common wisdom that FF cameras produce shallower DOF. The latter piece of wisdom, however, only applies, if one uses the same settings, and equivalent lenses (i.e., a longer focal length on the FF camera).
Perhaps try reading this
article on camera equivalence. The author is a Physicist with a PhD. Anyone claiming that equivalence arguments are nonsense or are made by people who do not understand the physics behind lenses, or are promoted by "
...pixel peepers and shallow dof fanatics around youtube and dpreview comment section...", should be aware that the science is supporting equivalence, not "50mm = 50mm".
P.S.: I'm not using the "Physicist with a PhD" reference to claim correctness of his arguments. I'm only pointing out what anyone disagreeing with the arguments can expect to be up against when claiming that physics is on their side. Of course, his arguments are correct, BTW, I'm merely pointing out that I'm not trying to make an "argument from authority".