The implicit claim is that it's as easy to sell cheap a MY 2008 Tamron 70-200 f/2.8, as a 15-30 f/2.8; because they're both "in low demand". I addressed that by pointing out the higher initial production volumes for a much more expensive 70-200 f/2.8 - the Pentax D FA*.
You're wrong, I don't have to expand my claims beyond what I can actually claim in good faith. This is just you rejecting a fact, for no good reason.
OTOH you're fine with speculation in a certain direction.
There are so many things wrong with your Tamron 70-200 example. Being old, from a time when 3rd-party makers (Sigma 2007, Tamron 2008) were making K-mount lenses. Being a pre-crisis lens. Being over 8 years old, which means the current price is heavily discounted. Being over 8 years old, thus launched in very different market conditions (e.g. K-mount user base). Possibly being out of production. Just because it was possible in 2008 it doesn't mean a different lens, at a different price point would be possible today.
As I said, your example is begging the question: in which way is it relevant to the D FA 15-30mm?
By agreement, do you mean me giving up on the facts I know and fully adopt your opinion?