Originally posted by Deni I engaged in a sort of talk with one of the best known photographers here in Albania, which happens to be the main photographer of the company I work for.
In few words he says that his full frame canon is able to receive more light under the same circumstances than my humble k100d.
That is, safe focal length, same aperture, same aperture speed and same iso speed. Is that possible? He found it frustrating that I couldn't understand that much. I was telling him that I agree that the quality of the photo won't be the same, but the exposure has to be the same.
Light is light, the same apature and focal length will give you the same exposure, because exposure is based upon the light intensity per square mm of surface area. But, I think what he means is that with a full frame sensor, a lens has a wider field of view.
Quote: He also insisted that his several thousand euros lens captures more light under the same circumstances as my humble sigma 28-70 f/2.8 ex dg. The same as above, same light, same focal length, same aperture, same iso. Is that correct? I thought, like in the case with the camera, that the difference would be in quality and not exposure.
This is an interesting point, where I think he believes the expensive lenses have lower losses in the glass. I recall years ago, a photo magazine uses to publish the true apature, under test conditions, against setting. this may be what he is getting at, but in principle F2.8 is F2.8 regardless of who makes the lens
Quote: Who's right and amateur, me, or someone who is considered one of the best photographers in Albania?
In my view, what you are coming up against is simply the attitude that since he pays more for his equipment it is far superior to yours. Don't wory about it, and don't let it bother you. just go on and continue using your camera, to take the images you like.
If you want to continue this discussion with him, ask him for the mathematical proof of his statements. That should give him pause