Originally posted by Vicioustuna2012 Can anyone explain this?
The physical opening stays the same, though the apparent size viewed from the front may vary by zoom setting. Complicated subject...don't worry about it.
Originally posted by Vicioustuna2012 So...would the f40 at 90mm really be about the same as f22 and 28mm, in terms of depth of field and light allowed through the lens?
F/40 is f/40 and f/28 is f/28 even though the physical (absolute) aperture size stays the same. F-stop may also be referred to as relative aperture or f-ratio. It is quite literally a ratio where "f" is the focal length and the denominator is the focal length ÷ diameter of the
exit entrance pupil (how the aperture looks from the front of the lens).* Since the f-number is relative to the focal length, it means the same in regards to exposure regardless of the focal length. Example:
50mm lens with exit entrance pupil size = 25mm: (50 ÷ 25) ==> f/2
Exit Entrance pupil size for f/2 where f = 50mm: 50 ÷ 2 = 25mm
100mm lens with exit entrance pupil size = 50mm: (100 ÷ 50) ==> f/2
100mm lens with exit entrance pupil size = 25mm: (100 ÷ 24) ==> f/4 (half as much light)
For both lenses the amount of light to the sensor is the same at f/2 and half as much at f/4.
The relationship between DOF, absolute aperture, focal length, focus distance, f-stop, and bokeh is complicated. It is enough to say that what you get is what you get and that f/3.5 (or even f/5.6) at 28mm with your lens will definitely have different DOF than f/5.6 at 90mm and that bokeh will likely be different as well. There is a DOF scale on the topside of your lens opposite the focus scale that provides a good estimate for FF bodies.
Steve
* I should probably have simply said absolute aperture size since the
exit entrance pupil size is essentially equivalent for uncomplicated cases.